Pastor Bob DuPar
May 19, 2008
Journal Entry
Scripture
1 Samuel 24:1-25:44; John 10:22-42; Psalm 116:1-19; Proverbs 15:20-21.
Observation
David’s words to Saul in 1 Samuel 24:9 are telling, “Why do you listen to men?” King Saul had listened to the foolish counsel of men who led him astray rather than examining David’s actions as evidence of his faithfulness and godliness. Saul’s response in 24:16 is sweet but unfortunately very late:
“He wept aloud. ‘You are more righteous than I. You have treated me well, but I have treated you badly.”
I’m always confused over the polygamy of OT leaders – especially those who God described as “a man after His own heart.”
I love John 10:27-28,
“My sheep hear My voice and I know them, and they follow Me. I give eternal life to them, and they will never perish; and no one can snatch them out of My hand.”
Jesus’ words in John 10:30: “I and the Father are one,” have to be construed as a claim to divinity. The Jews themselves confirm this in 10:33: “We are stoning You for blasphemy, because You, a mere man, claim to be God.” How can people say that Jesus never claimed to be God?
Finally, I like Proverbs 15:21, “Folly delights a man who lacks judgment, but a man of understanding keeps a straight course.”
Application
David’s dealings with Saul & Nabal are a great example of letting God deal with people in His time and way rather than taking justice into our own hands. I believe our security as believers is based on God’s power to hold on to us, not our ability to mess things up (God has already factored this in.)
Prayer
“God, thank You for counting me as a lamb in Your fold/care. Thank You for loving me and holding on to me with a grip so secure that no power or person can snatch me from Your Almighty hand.”
posted by Bob DuPar @ 10:19 PM
1 Comments
1 Comments:
Greetings Bob DuPar
I would like to comment on your statement:
Jesus’ words in John 10:30: “I and the Father are one,” have to be construed as a claim to divinity. The Jews themselves confirm this in 10:33: “We are stoning You for blasphemy, because You, a mere man, claim to be God.” How can people say that Jesus never claimed to be God?
The fact remains that Jesus did not claimed to be God.
He claimed to be ONE with the Father.
(Compare John 17.11,21-22)
And if there was any chance of misunderstanding in the light of the Jews' "accusation"; he then stated:
(John 10:36) Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said,
I am the Son of God?
That who Jesus claimed to be!
Not Almighty GOD, but rather
"the Son of GOD".
And we ought to take his words rather than the words of his accusers! Don't you agree?
So, being "the Son of GOD" is Jesus' claim
(cp. Matt 16.16)!
And how indeed did the Jews understand him?
Well ... the Jews believe in solely ONE GOD, ONE Person/Being who is GOD!
Jesus himself calls this ONE GOD, the Father.
He calls the Father,
The Only True GOD.
[John 17.3]
Look at Jesus' answer to what is the greatest commandment?
(Mark 12:28-34) ... 29 And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord: ... 32 And the scribe said unto him, Well, Master, thou hast said the truth: for there is one God; and there is none other but he: 33 And to love him with all the heart, and with all the understanding, and with all the soul, and with all the strength, and to love his neighbour as himself, is more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices. ...
Obviously neither Jesus nor the scribe were trinitarians.
They both solely believed in ONE Being who is Almighty GOD, YAHWEH;
according to the Hebrew Scriptures.
Now back to John 10:30ff ... in the light of these facts, were the Jews actually saying in v.33 that Jesus was makest thyself [ALMIGHTY] God? Was that their Jewish understanding?
The answer is NO! No Jew in Biblical times would ever call any human being, Almighty GOD! No not one.
There is in actuality, no definite article before the word 'God/theos' in the text of verse 33.
Thus it is equivalent for example to Acts 12.22 ... the voice of a god, and not of a man;
or 28.6 ... and said that he was a god.
Of course, the Jews were not making use of the word "God" in the pagan sense shown in these Acts verses.
I am just pointing out that the Greek text is identical, and therefore shoud have been translated into English in the same manner, to bring out the sense! An indefinite article should have been added!
Again, it is similar to John 6.70 ... there is no definite article before devil/diabolos. Therefore, Jesus was not saying that any of his disciples were the devil; rather one was a devil.
Back to John 10:30ff.
The Jews therefore, were saying that Jesus was makest thyself a God! Hence Jesus countered with Psalm 82.
The Jews were accusing Jesus of making himself a God i.e. a judge for Almighty GOD, a representative of Almighty GOD;
just as Moses and the judges before him were gods in that biblical Jewish sense
[Exo 4.16, 7.1, 22.8-9,28]
Therefore Jesus countered by saying if the men of Psa. 82 could be called gods by the ONE GOD, to whom the word of Almighty GOD came;
how much more he whom the Father [THE ONE GOD] hath sanctified, and sent into the world, can be "Son of GOD"!!
Which by implication, defends Jesus' claim to be 'God' in the very sense of Psalm 82.
That is how the Jews understood him.
Jesus of Nazareth is claiming to be the Messiah, the Son of GOD, therefore, the ultimate 'God' in the sense of Psalm 82; that is, the ultimate Representative and Judge for Almighty GOD;
even as, and in the same sense, as Moses was made 'God' by Almighty GOD Himself [Exo 7.1]
Both Jesus and Moses were human beings.
Both representated the ONE GOD.
Both were not the ONE GOD, obviously, seeing that there is solely ONE ALMIGHTY GOD.
So they as well as the judges were not God in the sense of Almighty GOD!
Nevertheless Almighty GOD made Moses 'God';
and in a greater sense, did the same for His Son, Jesus the Messiah;
the promised Prophet like unto Moses!
[Deut 18.15,18-19]
Jesus, therefore, is GOD's ultimate Representative and Judge
[Acts 10.42, 17.31, Heb 1.8]
So Jesus being GOD in the sense of Psalm 82 is no blasphemy.
And at his trial, no Jew ever accused Jesus of claiming to be the ONE GOD of Israel. Note that!
Because that wasn't their understanding of his claims!
They understood him to be claiming to be the Messiah, the Son of the ONE GOD, the ordained, promised King of Israel.
[e.g. Matt 26.63-64, 27.40-43, John 19.7, etc]
And likewise, Jesus never ever claimed to be Almighty GOD. NEVER!
Even in the passage you quoted ...
(John 10:36) Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said,
I am the Son of God?
So the question for us today ought to be:
Is Jesus the Son of God? [See John 20.31]
Because that is who he claimed to be!
He never ever claimed to be Almighty GOD? NEVER!
And no Jew accused him of such a claim!
For more info on this subject,
I recommend this video:
The Human Jesus
Take a couple of hours to watch it; and prayerfully it will aid you in your quest for truth.
Yours In Messiah
Adam Pastor
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